Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 02:43
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Would the word literate carry the same meaning with public (common wealth) in 1900 vs today 2020?
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.